GS Mock Test - Environmental Science & Geography
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General Studies Mock Test-1

Marking: +1 for Correct | -0.25 for Incorrect


1. Consider the following types of vehicles:
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel Cell electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) Only three
  • (d) All the four

4. Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

5. Consider the following substances:
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

6. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread climate policy tools in the coming decades.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct?

  • (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

7. Which one of the following best describes the concept of "greenwashing"?

  • (a) Conveying a false impression about a company's environmental practices
  • (b) Excessive use of green colour in branding
  • (c) Plantation of trees for carbon offset
  • (d) Certification of organic products

8. Consider the following statements regarding India's National Hydrogen Mission:
I. It aims to make India a global hub for green hydrogen production.
II. It promotes use of fossil-fuel-based hydrogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

9. Which of the following gases is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect?

  • (a) Oxygen
  • (b) Nitrogen
  • (c) Carbon dioxide
  • (d) Argon

10. Consider the following renewable energy sources:
I. Solar
II. Wind
III. Hydropower
IV. Biomass
How many of the above are renewable sources of energy?

  • (a) Only two
  • (b) Only three
  • (c) All the four
  • (d) None

11. The term "blue economy" refers to:

  • (a) Sustainable use of ocean resources
  • (b) Exploitation of marine minerals
  • (c) Inland water transport
  • (d) Fisheries development only

12. Which of the following organizations publishes the World Energy Outlook?

  • (a) World Bank
  • (b) International Energy Agency
  • (c) United Nations
  • (d) World Economic Forum

13. Consider the following statements:
I. Methane is a more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.
II. Methane has a shorter atmospheric lifetime than carbon dioxide.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

14. The Kigali Amendment is related to the control of:

  • (a) Carbon dioxide
  • (b) Methane
  • (c) Hydrofluorocarbons
  • (d) Sulphur dioxide

15. Which one of the following sectors contributes the most to global greenhouse gas emissions?

  • (a) Transport
  • (b) Industry
  • (c) Agriculture
  • (d) Energy

16. Consider the following pairs:
Energy Source - Example
I. Renewable - Wind
II. Non-renewable - Coal
III. Nuclear - Uranium
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

17. What is the primary objective of carbon capture and storage (CCS)?

  • (a) Reduce fossil fuel use
  • (b) Capture and store CO2 emissions
  • (c) Increase renewable energy
  • (d) Improve energy efficiency

18. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

  • (a) Methane
  • (b) Nitrous oxide
  • (c) Ozone
  • (d) Helium

19. The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise to:

  • (a) Below 3°C
  • (b) Below 2°C
  • (c) Below 1°C
  • (d) Exactly 2°C

20. Which one of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?

  • (a) Coal
  • (b) Petroleum
  • (c) Nuclear
  • (d) Solar

21. Consider the following environmental movements:
I. Chipko Movement
II. Narmada Bachao Andolan
III. Silent Valley Movement
How many of the above originated in India?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

22. What does "net zero emissions" mean?

  • (a) Zero use of fossil fuels
  • (b) Emissions equal removals
  • (c) Zero industrial activity
  • (d) No carbon taxes

23. Which organization releases the Global Climate Risk Index?

  • (a) UNEP
  • (b) IPCC
  • (c) Germanwatch
  • (d) IMF

24. Consider the following statements:
I. Afforestation increases carbon sequestration.
II. Deforestation reduces biodiversity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

25. Which one of the following best defines sustainable development?

  • (a) Economic growth without limits
  • (b) Development meeting present needs without harming future needs
  • (c) Industrial growth only
  • (d) Environmental protection only

26. Consider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
I. It was established by the United Nations Environment Programme and the World Meteorological Organization.
II. It conducts original research on climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

27. Which of the following is the largest source of freshwater on Earth?

  • (a) Rivers
  • (b) Lakes
  • (c) Glaciers and ice caps
  • (d) Groundwater

28. Consider the following pollutants:
I. Sulphur dioxide
II. Nitrogen oxides
III. Carbon monoxide
How many of the above are primary air pollutants?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

29. Which of the following best describes “carbon neutrality”?

  • (a) Eliminating all carbon emissions
  • (b) Balancing carbon emissions with removal
  • (c) Using only renewable energy
  • (d) Banning fossil fuels

30. Which one of the following gases is released during the manufacture of cement?

  • (a) Methane
  • (b) Nitrous oxide
  • (c) Carbon dioxide
  • (d) Ozone

31. Consider the following statements regarding mangroves:
I. They act as a buffer against coastal erosion.
II. They are found only in tropical regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

32. Which one of the following is a Ramsar Site?

  • (a) Chilika Lake
  • (b) Bhitarkanika National Park
  • (c) Silent Valley
  • (d) Gir Forest

33. Consider the following statements:
I. Ozone at ground level is harmful to human health.
II. Stratospheric ozone protects life on Earth.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

34. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

  • (a) Plastic bottle
  • (b) Glass
  • (c) Vegetable peels
  • (d) Aluminium can

35. The main objective of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) is to:

  • (a) Promote nuclear energy
  • (b) Enhance climate resilience
  • (c) Increase coal production
  • (d) Reduce population growth

36. Consider the following pairs:
Protected Area – State
I. Kaziranga National Park – Assam
II. Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary – Kerala
III. Simlipal Biosphere Reserve – Odisha
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

37. Which of the following causes acid rain?

  • (a) Carbon monoxide
  • (b) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
  • (c) Methane
  • (d) Ozone

38. The term “ecological footprint” refers to:

  • (a) Area of forest cover
  • (b) Measure of human demand on nature
  • (c) Soil fertility
  • (d) Biodiversity index

39. Which of the following is a renewable biofuel?

  • (a) Diesel
  • (b) Ethanol
  • (c) LPG
  • (d) Kerosene

40. Consider the following statements regarding wetlands:
I. They help in flood control.
II. They recharge groundwater.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

41. Which organization publishes the “State of the World’s Forests” report?

  • (a) UNEP
  • (b) FAO
  • (c) UNESCO
  • (d) IUCN

42. Which of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

  • (a) National Park
  • (b) Wildlife Sanctuary
  • (c) Seed Bank
  • (d) Biosphere Reserve

43. Consider the following statements:
I. Biodiversity hotspots have high endemism.
II. Biodiversity hotspots cover more than 50% of Earth’s land surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

44. Which one of the following best describes the “circular economy”?

  • (a) Linear production model
  • (b) Reduce–Reuse–Recycle model
  • (c) Increased consumption
  • (d) Waste disposal only

45. The Montreal Protocol aims to phase out:

  • (a) Greenhouse gases
  • (b) Ozone-depleting substances
  • (c) Plastic waste
  • (d) Heavy metals

46. Which of the following ecosystems has the highest biodiversity?

  • (a) Desert
  • (b) Grassland
  • (c) Tropical rainforest
  • (d) Tundra

47. Consider the following statements regarding soil erosion:
I. Deforestation increases soil erosion.
II. Afforestation reduces soil erosion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

48. Which of the following is a non-point source of pollution?

  • (a) Factory effluent
  • (b) Sewage treatment plant
  • (c) Agricultural runoff
  • (d) Oil refinery

49. Which one of the following is used to measure air quality?

  • (a) Richter scale
  • (b) AQI
  • (c) Decibel
  • (d) pH scale

50. The term “carbon sink” refers to:

  • (a) Source of carbon emissions
  • (b) Storage system that absorbs carbon
  • (c) Fossil fuel reserve
  • (d) Industrial exhaust

51. Consider the following statements regarding coral reefs:
I. Coral reefs are formed from calcium carbonate structures.
II. They are found only in deep ocean waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

52. Which of the following best describes “sustainable agriculture”?

  • (a) Maximizing crop yield using chemicals
  • (b) Farming that conserves natural resources
  • (c) Shifting cultivation
  • (d) Mono-cropping

53. Consider the following gases:
I. Carbon dioxide
II. Methane
III. Nitrous oxide
How many of the above are greenhouse gases?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

54. Which one of the following is the main cause of ozone layer depletion?

  • (a) Carbon monoxide
  • (b) Chlorofluorocarbons
  • (c) Nitrogen dioxide
  • (d) Sulphur dioxide

55. The “Green Climate Fund” was established under:

  • (a) Kyoto Protocol
  • (b) Paris Agreement
  • (c) UNFCCC
  • (d) Montreal Protocol

56. Consider the following statements regarding India’s forest cover:
I. India’s forest cover has increased in recent years.
II. Forest Survey of India publishes the India State of Forest Report.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

57. Which one of the following is a major source of indoor air pollution in rural India?

  • (a) LPG
  • (b) Electricity
  • (c) Biomass fuel
  • (d) Solar energy

58. Consider the following pairs:
National Park – State
I. Bandipur – Karnataka
II. Kanha – Madhya Pradesh
III. Manas – Assam
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

59. Which of the following is a characteristic of invasive species?

  • (a) Native to the ecosystem
  • (b) Low reproduction rate
  • (c) Rapid spread and competition
  • (d) Improves biodiversity

60. The concept of “planetary boundaries” is associated with:

  • (a) Space exploration
  • (b) Climate and environmental limits
  • (c) Population control
  • (d) Economic growth

61. Consider the following statements regarding rivers:
I. Rivers are renewable freshwater resources.
II. River pollution affects groundwater quality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

62. Which one of the following is a fossil fuel?

  • (a) Wind
  • (b) Solar
  • (c) Natural gas
  • (d) Hydropower

63. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity loss:
I. Habitat destruction is a major cause.
II. Climate change accelerates biodiversity loss.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

64. Which of the following best describes “eutrophication”?

  • (a) Desertification process
  • (b) Nutrient enrichment of water bodies
  • (c) Soil erosion
  • (d) Air pollution

65. The “Swachh Bharat Mission” primarily aims to:

  • (a) Improve urban transport
  • (b) Achieve universal sanitation
  • (c) Increase renewable energy
  • (d) Promote afforestation

66. Consider the following environmental laws in India:
I. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
II. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
III. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
How many of the above are correctly related to environmental protection?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

67. Which one of the following organisms is a primary producer?

  • (a) Lion
  • (b) Deer
  • (c) Grass
  • (d) Human

68. Consider the following statements regarding climate adaptation:
I. It reduces vulnerability to climate change.
II. It focuses only on mitigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

69. Which of the following is a source of non-renewable energy?

  • (a) Wind
  • (b) Solar
  • (c) Coal
  • (d) Biomass

70. The term “urban heat island” refers to:

  • (a) Green spaces in cities
  • (b) Higher temperatures in urban areas
  • (c) Coastal climate
  • (d) Industrial cooling zones

71. Consider the following statements regarding wildlife corridors:
I. They connect fragmented habitats.
II. They reduce human-wildlife conflict.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

72. Which organization releases the “Living Planet Report”?

  • (a) UNEP
  • (b) WWF
  • (c) FAO
  • (d) IUCN

73. Consider the following waste types:
I. Biomedical waste
II. Electronic waste
III. Plastic waste
How many of the above require special handling and disposal?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

74. Which of the following is an effect of climate change?

  • (a) Sea-level rise
  • (b) Increased biodiversity
  • (c) Stable weather patterns
  • (d) Reduced extreme events

75. The main objective of environmental impact assessment (EIA) is to:

  • (a) Promote industrialization
  • (b) Predict environmental consequences of projects
  • (c) Increase GDP
  • (d) Reduce project costs

76. Consider the following statements regarding renewable energy:
I. Renewable energy sources are inexhaustible.
II. Renewable energy causes no environmental impact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

77. Which of the following best describes “climate mitigation”?

  • (a) Adjusting to climate impacts
  • (b) Reducing greenhouse gas emissions
  • (c) Disaster management
  • (d) Weather forecasting

78. Consider the following pairs:
Pollutant – Source
I. Carbon monoxide – Vehicle exhaust
II. Sulphur dioxide – Coal combustion
III. Methane – Landfills
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

79. Which one of the following is the largest terrestrial ecosystem?

  • (a) Tropical rainforest
  • (b) Desert
  • (c) Grassland
  • (d) Tundra

80. The term “biomagnification” refers to:

  • (a) Increase in population size
  • (b) Accumulation of toxins along the food chain
  • (c) Soil nutrient enrichment
  • (d) Carbon sequestration

81. Consider the following statements regarding groundwater:
I. Groundwater is replenished through infiltration.
II. Overextraction leads to land subsidence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

82. Which of the following is an example of a greenhouse gas emitted from agriculture?

  • (a) Carbon dioxide
  • (b) Methane
  • (c) Sulphur dioxide
  • (d) Ozone

83. Consider the following statements regarding protected areas:
I. National Parks allow human habitation.
II. Wildlife Sanctuaries permit regulated human activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

84. Which one of the following is the primary cause of deforestation in India?

  • (a) Mining
  • (b) Shifting cultivation
  • (c) Agricultural expansion
  • (d) Urban waste

85. The “Kyoto Protocol” is related to:

  • (a) Ozone protection
  • (b) Climate change mitigation
  • (c) Biodiversity conservation
  • (d) Desertification

86. Consider the following environmental indicators:
I. Air Quality Index
II. Water Quality Index
III. Human Development Index
How many of the above are used to assess environmental conditions?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

87. Which of the following best describes “ecological succession”?

  • (a) Sudden ecosystem collapse
  • (b) Gradual change in species composition
  • (c) Seasonal migration
  • (d) Soil erosion

88. Consider the following statements regarding solid waste management:
I. Segregation at source improves recycling efficiency.
II. Open dumping causes environmental pollution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

89. Which one of the following is a renewable natural resource?

  • (a) Coal
  • (b) Petroleum
  • (c) Forests
  • (d) Natural gas

90. The main objective of the National Biodiversity Act, 2002 is to:

  • (a) Promote industrial growth
  • (b) Conserve biological diversity
  • (c) Increase forest revenue
  • (d) Encourage mining

91. Consider the following statements regarding climate finance:
I. Developed countries provide financial support to developing countries.
II. Climate finance supports mitigation and adaptation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

92. Which one of the following is an effect of air pollution?

  • (a) Acid rain
  • (b) Soil salinity
  • (c) Water logging
  • (d) Desertification

93. Consider the following statements regarding wildlife protection in India:
I. Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in 1972.
II. It provides for the creation of National Parks and Sanctuaries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

94. Which of the following best describes “sustainable fisheries”?

  • (a) Maximizing fish catch
  • (b) Fishing without regulation
  • (c) Maintaining fish populations over time
  • (d) Deep-sea trawling

95. The term “carbon footprint” refers to:

  • (a) Area of forest cover
  • (b) Total greenhouse gas emissions of an entity
  • (c) Amount of fossil fuel reserve
  • (d) Industrial output

96. Consider the following countries:
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

  • (a) All the five
  • (b) Only four
  • (c) Only three
  • (d) Only two

97. Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other but fall on different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II

98. Who among the following was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement?

  • (a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
  • (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  • (c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
  • (d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

99. Consider the following pairs:
Country – Resource-rich in
I. Botswana – Diamond
II. Chile – Lithium
III. Indonesia – Nickel
How many of the above are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

100. Consider the following pairs:
Region – Country
I. Mallorca – Italy
II. Normandy – Spain
III. Sardinia – France
How many are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

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